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In Mathematics / High School | 2014-06-03

Why does [tex] \frac{2\pi}{\frac{1}{3}} [/tex] equal [tex] 6\pi [/tex]?

Asked by sarahstuart126

Answer (3)

2 π : 3 1 ​ = 2 π ⋅ 1 3 ​ = 2 π ⋅ 3 = 6 π

Answered by Anonymous | 2024-06-10

The expression 2 pi divided by 1/3 equals 6 pi because dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal. Therefore, 2 pi divided by 1/3 is equivalent to 2 pi multiplied by 3, resulting in 6 pi.
The question asks why 2 pi divided by 1/3 equals 6 pi. This can be understood by performing the division, which in mathematics is the same as multiplying by the reciprocal. Here's the step-by-step explanation:

Start with the original expression: 2 pi / (1/3).
Recall that dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal. The reciprocal of 1/3 is 3/1, or simply 3.
So, multiply 2 pi by 3: (2 pi) * 3 = 6 pi.

This relationship is fundamental in mathematics, especially when dealing with fractions and proportionalities.

Answered by SravyaDa | 2024-06-24

The expression 3 1 ​ 2 π ​ simplifies to 6 π by multiplying 2 π by the reciprocal of 3 1 ​ , which is 3 . Thus, it results in 2 π × 3 = 6 π . Understanding how to manipulate fractions is key in various mathematical calculations.
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Answered by Anonymous | 2024-10-11